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Larry Ray Hafley
Some who claim to be Christians say they cannot agree with every particular
doctrine in the Bible because they are not certain that the Bible has been
translated correctly.
Mormons, for example, say they believe the Bible "insofar as it is correctly
translated." Then, they appeal to Ezekiel 37 as a "prophecy" of the book of
Mormon. When I tell them that I cannot receive their "prophecy" because I am not
certain that Ezekiel 37 has been correctly translated, they assure me that that
passage has been. Thus, their inconsistency, if not their hypocrisy, has been
exposed!
Further, they tell me that in accordance with James 1:5 they have prayed to
God and asked him if the book of Mormon is true. They have been assured of God,
in fulfillment of his promise in James 1:5, that the book of Mormon is a genuine
revelation. When I tell them that James 1:5 may not be correctly translated and
that it may not be making such a promise, they stare in amazement. By taking
their own evasive dodge and using it against them, their selective use of
certain passages and a rejection of others is shown to be inconsistent at best
and hypocritical at worst.
Catholicism falls into the same trap. They mis-use 2 Peter 1:20, 21 to show
that men cannot understand the Bible. In other words, that text tells us that we
cannot explain or understand the Bible and they use that passage to prove it.
Well, can we "understand" 2 Peter 1:20, 21 when it allegedly tells us that we
cannot "understand" the Bible? They say we cannot understand and explain the
Bible on our own study, yet they expect us to read and understand that 2 Peter
1:20, 21 teaches that we cannot understand it! If God could write clearly and
tell us plainly that we cannot understand the Bible in that passage, could he
not do the same elsewhere about other matters?
The same principle is involved with those who are not sure about certain
Bible teachings because they fear the Bible has been corrupted in translation.
Does that apply to the fact that Jesus was born of a virgin and that Mary's
conception was by the Spirit of God? If not, why not? Since we cannot be certain
about what the Bible teaches because men have translated the Bible, does that
apply to Jesus' death, burial, and resurrection? Did translators mess up and
makes us believe in the resurrection of Christ through their perverted
translations? Is Jesus truly the only begotten Son of God? The Bible says he is,
but has it been correctly translated? Did God never intend for us to believe in
the Deity of Christ? Is that belief the fault of spurious translation?
Suppose I were to say, "Yes, I am a Christian, but I cannot accept the
creation account, the story of the flood, Jonah and the great fish, nor all the
miracles surrounding the birth, life, and death of Jesus, and I cannot accept
the teachings about his second coming, the judgment, and heaven and hell,
because I am not certain the Bible has been correctly translated! What would you
think of me if I rejected those items and still claimed to be a Christian? I
know of course that God exists and that he created the heavens and the earth and
that Jesus really lived on the earth--unless, of course, the translators have
botched up those facts, too!!
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