Larry Ray Hafley
Some believe we may have fellowship with those who do not abide
in "the doctrine of Christ." If a church has a piano or
organ in its worship, they will not object. If a church observes
traditions of men, such as Easter and Christmas, that is alright,
too. 2 John 9, though, is a problem for them. "Whosoever transgresseth,
and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that
abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the
Son."
How do they solve this problem? They say that "the doctrine of Christ" is not
the teaching of Christ; it is not the teaching or doctrine he taught, but it is
the doctrine, or teaching, about Christ himself; that is, it is the teaching
about the nature of Christ's person. If one teaches contrary to the true nature
and character of Christ's person, (Christ was completely man, completely
divine), then he "hath not God." So, they say 2 John 9 is talking about those
things and not about various points of doctrine (baptism, music in worship,
proper observance of the Lord's supper, etc.).
Which view is correct? (Would not those who say the passage is speaking about
the nature of Christ have to go to "the doctrine of Christ," the things Christ
taught, in order to learn about his correct nature?!) Perhaps the following
passages will help answer the question:
1) Jesus referred to "the doctrine of the Pharisees" (Matt. 16:6, 12). Was he
referring to the doctrine about that sect, or did he have reference to the
doctrine which they taught?
2) The disciples continued steadfastly "in the apostles doctrine" (Acts
2:42). Did they follow the doctrine about the apostles themselves, or did they
continue in the teaching which the apostles made known (Cf. Matt. 28:20)?
3) The Bible mentions "the doctrines of men" (Col. 2:22; Cf. Matt. 15:9; Mk.
7:7). Are "the doctrines of men" doctrines about the nature of man, or are they
the doctrines taught by men?
4) The Spirit says some will follow after "doctrines of devils" (1 Tim. 4:1).
Does that mean they will heed teachings about the character of demons, or does
it mean they will go after the doctrines taught by demons (Cf. 2 Cor. 11:13-15;
1 Jn. 4:1)?
5) Jesus spoke of "the doctrine of the Nicolaitans" (Rev. 2:15). Was that a
reference to teaching about the nature of the Nicolaitan people, or to the
doctrine or teaching which they did?
6) When Paul said that Jesus "was raised from the dead according to my
gospel," was he talking about a gospel about himself, or was he speaking of the
gospel of Christ (Rom. 1:16)?
7) If one were to mention "the doctrine of Billy Graham," would you think he
was referring to teaching about Mr. Graham himself, or to the doctrine which
Billy Graham taught?
Now, to what does "the doctrine of Christ" refer in 2 John 9?
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